There are several words used to describe the Bride of Christ that we eventually see being completed in the book of Revelation.
Revelation 19:7 “Let us rejoice and be glad and give the glory to Him, for the marriage of the Lamb has come and His bride has made herself ready.” (NASB1995)
This bride is known as the Church; the Body; the saints; the elect, just to name a few, but all of these are representative of the same saved or born again believing group of people, who are in Christ Jesus. Even Jesus Himself is known by several different descriptions or names in His Word — Think, savior; coming King; Lamb of God; Messiah; and very many more to describe this Son of God/Son of man, who has saved you and me.
I point this out because we also have more than one word to describe what is known as the Second Coming of Jesus. Thus the reason for the title to this post. But why this post is important is what is done with these words in an effort to convince you and me that the second coming is really two Second Comings; or as they say it: “it is in two parts”.
So here are the two words descriptive of Jesus next coming: Parousia (3952 in Strong’s) & Apokalupsis (602). These are both involved in the Rapture controversy, but there is actually a third, word which is not involved, so I won’t bring it forth at this time.
I’m going to quote just two of the controversial scriptures containing these two words, but I will list them all for you to read on your own.
Strong’s 602 Apokalupsis
I Cor. 1:7
11 Thess. 1:7
1 Peter 1;7 & 13
Strong’s 3952 Parousia
1 Thess 4: 15 & 17
11 Peter 3:4
1 John 2:28
From Apokalupsis (602) I have selected the following verse which is used to tell us that the word “coming” spoken of here is not really the second coming as it is stated to be, but it because of the different word used must be understood by us to mean that the Rapture is implied by this different word as being a separate coming event from the Second Coming to earth. Listen:
1 Thessalonians 4:15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep. (KJV)
Now I want you to consider that the scholars have translated this and every verse in question, and even in the Darby translation this word is translated “coming”, and in every one of these verses listed this word translated “coming” speaks of the Lord’s coming.
Then the word Parousia (3952) is used in the following verse. Listen:
2 Thessalonians 1:7 And to you who are troubled rest with us, when the Lord Jesus shall be revealed from heaven with his mighty angels, (KJV)
The word Parousia then is translated to mean “revealed”, but this word we are told relates to Jesus actual coming to earth. It is understood to explain the second coming even though we do not hear the word coming in this passage. Why is this fact understood by all? — because it is obvious to us all in the context, that this is His coming in wrath, even as we see Him come in Rev. 19.
So, why then am I asking you to consider these verses? Consider: that the Church according to the pre-Trib Rapture teaching is supposed to be in heaven at a marriage feast, having no concerns about the raging Tribulation going on, on the earth when this coming occurs. This we are to be doing up until the time spoken of in 2 Thess. 1:7 is to take place at Christ’s coming to earth. Considering this: Why then does Paul say the following to the Church? Listen again: “And to you who are troubled rest with us, when the Lord Jesus shall be revealed from heaven with his mighty angels,”. Paul is exacting in his description. This is the time for Tribulations sufferings to cease when you read the preceding context. If this then is understood by Paul to be the state of the church when Jesus actually returns in His second coming to earth, how can we say that these two words within these passages of scripture represent two different comings separated by the Tribulation?
In fact, is it not more reasonable to think that these two words represent the same event just as Jesus Himself is represented by very different titles. Does it really make sense to think that the coming of Jesus is a different time, than the revelation of Jesus at His coming? Everyone agrees that the word “revelation” in 2 Thess. 1:7 speaks of Jesus’ second coming, but only Pre-Trib scholars believe that the word coming in 1 Thess 4:15 does not exactly mean His second coming.
There is really no evidence in scripture that Christ does not come for us and resurrect and rapture us as He returns to the earth the second time. In fact the evidence says that He will do just that.
Mark 13:26 “And then they will see THE SON OF MAN COMING IN CLOUDS with great power and glory. 27 “And then He will send forth the angels, and will gather together His elect from the four winds, from the end of the earth to the end of heaven. (NASB2020)