Missler says “the fullness of the Gentiles means the church is complete”. This concept “the fullness of the gentiles” is taught by Paul in Romans 11, and by Jesus in the Olivet discourse, as seen by some.
Romans 11:25 For I do not want you, brothers [and sisters,] to be uninformed of this mystery–so that you will not be wise in your own estimation–that a partial hardening has happened to Israel until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in; (NASB2020)
“Come in” refers to coming into the Olive tree, and that tree obviously represents the people who either have been or will be saved by God’s plan of Salvation. The Old Testament remnant of God’s people is represented there; we the New Testament of Gods people both Jew and Gentile are represented there; and a future Nation Israel will be represented there once they call upon Jesus, but this will not happen until the last gentile to be saved is saved. Though the argument is that this occurs at the pre-Trib rapture, there is no future cut off of Gentile salvation until after the Tribulation is over. How do we know that? — because God is still offering men repentance until the very end of wrath’s outpouring immediately before Armageddon;
Revelation 16:11 and they blasphemed the God of heaven because of their pains and their sores; and they did not repent of their deeds. (NASB1995)
If God was still, at this time, looking for repentance; then would He not have still granted salvation? There is no question that God still had man’s repentance in mind at this time. It was foreseen in John’s vision that it was man who failed the test. It is God who is still seen as testing up until the end. So how can one conclude just when it is that this last gentile is saved?
Just how do Dispensationalist’s conclude Paul’s last gentile’s salvation to occur before Tribulation? There will be no turning to Israel until it does. Missler also implies that this is why he believes the Scripture is silent on the rapture — why it is secrete. It (he says) is because God wants to catch Satan by surprise. This is Interesting and bordering on falsehood for several reasons: Israel could not be either destroyed or saved until she again became a nation (not once she was dispersed among the nations); and this fact (her regathering) produces one of the many signs. It is because of the many signs that allow that we are not to be surprised by the Day of the Lord (not because we know when He is coming, but because we know the signs pointing to His coming). So how is God going to make an always imminent return to be truth when it was never feasible following Israel’s dispersion up until our own day. Is God the deceiving one? Remember Satan knows Scripture. The Demons knew Jesus. The Rapture is not hidden from us or from Satan. Why would not Satan be the one introducing the confusing doctrine which is “secrete” and “hidden” (Not my understanding, but Missler’s).