There is a theory today that the Catholic Church has come forth in recent decades in the spirit of cooperation with Protestant Bible Scholars in order to produce a one world Bible, which in turn will be used to establish a one world religion under the Antichrist. The conclusion by these men is that this ONE World Bible has been in existence since 1979, when the Greek Text adopted by the American Bible Society became, the Nestle’s NOVUM TESTAMENTUM GRAECE.
Of course there is controversy surrounding the original texts to be used when translating the Bible from the original languages.
There are many modern translations of the Bible, but all are translated from the same catholic influenced “thought to be tainted original manuscripts” of the old and new testaments.
This fact has brought about the controversy, and thus the resultant KJV only advocates.
The reason that this is such an important and highly debated topic concerns the fact that we are dealing with the truth of the inspired word of God.
What however causes me to write this article has nothing to do with Biblical inerrancy. I believe that both sides believe for the most part in inerrancy. But I want to take a different approach as to the need for the controversy.
If you will bear with me, I want us to think about three things which I believe when taken together will blow up this entire controversy.
First I want us to consider the Translation done by Wycliffe.
Secondly I want us to think about the way scripture is not translated but interpreted.
Thirdly, I want you to consider the presentation of the Gospel.
So, with Wycliffe Bible translators we have a couple who are educated, but not necessarily in linguistics, who go into a remote village where the tribe does not even have a written language and they learn their language and write it down, translate the scripture into this new language in order to present it and teach it to the tribal representatives. Is it possible to translate every word exactly as Jesus would have spoken it had He come to this village? No.
Secondly, consider interpretation. We all possessed the exact same King James Bibles prior to 1979, and yet we had at least 10-15 different denominational interpretations of its doctrinal teachings. Are they all correct? Is even one of them 100% correct? No.
Thirdly, when we present the Gospel, is the presentation made using only KJV scripture, otherwise the person cannot be saved? OR do some persons turn to Christ based on our telling them the gospel in our own words using a paraphrased version of the scriptures involved? Obviously the answer is Yes!
My points are these: the Holy Spirit must be involved in our teaching. The word of God therefore must be interpreted for us by the Holy Spirit. And finally we are already committed believers and we have probably been reading something other than the KJV only. Plus we probably will not in our lifetime know all of the truth even if we use KJV only.
I know the truth is important, I argue this point all of the time, but when I look at a scripture like Ephesians 3:9
And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ:
Ephesians 3:9 KJV
What is left off in this verse is “by Jesus Christ”
And then I compare:
and to bring to light what is the administration of the mystery which for ages has been hidden in God who created all things;
Ephesians 3:9 NASB
The question is this. Is this an intentional omission in order to set up this One World Religion? For that answer let’s go to John 1 NASB.
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God. All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being.
John 1:1-3 NASB
It is obvious that there is no intention to change this verse when we compare it with the KJV. IN FACT IT IS CLEARER. So we know from this that Jesus is the creator of all things. Having said that this manuscript did omit “by Jesus Christ” in the Ephesians verse. Was the best manuscript used when setting up Ephesians 3:9? No. Is it false in what it says? No, because we all know that Jesus is God from John’s gospel. Will the Antichrist be able to set up his One World Religion using this supposedly “false” manuscript? No. In fact, I would be much more concerned about the misrepresentation of what is actually contained in the NASB, and by so doing turning it’s message into false teaching or false doctrine by twisting the words of truth contained there.
If Satan can use this Biblical Manuscript to create a united one world false religion; then why before 1979, could we not accomplish a unified Church doctrine using the KJV?