2.We are not destined to ever experience God’s wrath as His bride, and the Tribulation is God’s wrath.

A true prophet teaches the truth of scripture. There is no scripture anywhere that can be pointed to that reinforces this argument. Nowhere does it say that the Tribulation equals God’s wrath. The only passage used to state this — in no wise says this.

Revelation 3:10 Because thou hast kept the word of my patience, I also will keep thee from the hour of temptation, which shall come upon all the world, to try them that dwell upon the earth. KJV

This “hour” is no where in scripture taught to be the Tribulation. Just as the Tribulation is nowhere said to be Gods wrath. To draw these conclusions without Scriptural proof is no different than to lay claim to the statement that Lucifer is Jesus’ Brother. One may believe this, but in order to teach it there must be scripture to support it. otherwise what are you teaching?

There is as much scripture on which to draw one conclusion as there is on which to draw the other. I had written a prior post showing that this hour is most likely the time of the outpouring of God’s Orge wrath, which occurs in the very last hour or hours of the Tribulation. I have a previous post explaining the difference in Orge vs Thumos wrath. And yes this hour is after the resurrection and Rapture of the bride at the end of Tribulation.

The Tribulation is the time of Jacobs trouble. God will not pour out His wrath on Israel in order to save her. Gods wrath is always meant for destruction. But, He will allow Satan, and the world that follows Satan, to aid in the pouring out of Satans wrath against her, and even then this allowed wrath of Satan will not harm the salvation of His people who trust Him unto the end. They may lose their life, but what does Jesus say of this?

Matthew 10:39 He that findeth his life shall lose it: and he that loseth his life for my sake shall find it. (KJV).

Why would we think that God would put Israel through what would be too hard for the church to endure? And why would The bride not have arrived to her full maturity, a complete bride, a ready bride, until after Tribulation (Rev. 19)?

Why do we see Paul going back to Jerusalem to be certain that he was teaching the Gentiles correctly? It was because he was inviting these Gentiles to join in a Jewish New Covenant. Gentiles were being adopted into an Israelite bride. God was becoming our Father, and Jesus the bridegroom — The Redeemer.

Next time we discuss: 3. There is no mention of the Church being on earth in Revelation between Chapter 4 verse 1 and chapter 19, and yet it is precisely in these chapters where we find the Tribulation