Dr Reluctant, as I stated to you in the comments on your blog, I have further clarified and reposted my question to you here.

On your blog you wrote: “Again, when John despairs because there is no one in heaven or earth who is found worthy to break the seals in Revelation 5, he is answered,”

I need to ask you to please explain the following verses in light of the fact that the events recorded here in Revelation 5 are taking place according to you and dispensational theology after the Rapture of the Bride or the Church has occurred.

Revelation 5:2 And I saw a strong angel proclaiming with a loud voice, “Who is worthy to open the book and to break its seals?”

First I would point out to you and any listening that every believer as well as the strong Angel and even John himself will know beyond any reasonable doubt the answer to this question, which is here being asked; if what is being described here in actuality represents a still future time for John as well as for us, who would at that future time be there with John and our Lord: for after the rapture “we will always be with the Lord”. However if instead of this being a future occurrence it is instead a rendering of what actually happened far in the past when John was called into heaven over 1900 years ago; then and only then does this make any logical sense.

Revelation 5:3 And no one in heaven or on the earth or under the earth was able to open the book or to look into it.

This fact has long before been known by us all if this is describing an after rapture event. But no one anywhere in all of creation knew at the time that John was there that Jesus would be the one to accomplish this act.

Revelation 5:4 Then I [began] to weep greatly because no one was found worthy to open the book or to look into it;

John must be looked upon as more senile than Joe Biden, if in fact, he is actually occupying a future time when he there weeps, yet this is what you believe this time to be representing: which is placing it after the time of John’s having been representing the bride’s rapture. It makes much better sense to rather see John as engaging this scene well before any rapture and seeing it as the time associated with the actual event which was occurring when he was actually caught up into heaven: even as the Apostle Paul described that he was caught up also in his own day.

Revelation 5:5 and one of the elders said to me, “Stop weeping; behold, the Lion that is from the tribe of Judah, the Root of David, has overcome so as to open the book and its seven seals.”

This Lion who is in the very next verse seen as the Lamb standing as if slain will come for His bride as the King in royal wedding garments dipped in blood. By then He will have logically already opened the seven seals long before we are caught up to be with Him. There is no reason to believe that this event did not occur at around 90 AD in conjunction with John’s being caught up into heaven. And there is no reason to believe that the effects of these seals (with two exceptions) have not been occurring over the last almost two millennia. As for those last two, they will occur toward the end of the age of mankind, incorporating the signs of those days.

How can you justify the illogic in the Dispensationalists position? I realize that to admit that the Dispensationalist position is wrong here would also bring havoc to other strong assertions within what, I believe, to be a very flawed rendering of the book of Revelation.

The fact that seals 6 and 7 represent events occurring at the very end of the Age of Humankind’s rule and at the beginning of Christ’s rule does not necessitate that the other seals can or do represent the events of the Tribulation.